Why Did the Apostle Paul introduce the examples of Issac and Jacob regarding Romans 9? #ChatGPT

According to the context of Romans 9, doesn't the Apostle Paul give the examples of Isaac and Jacob as to explain why the Word of God has not failed in regard to the Jews?

Yes, in Romans 9, the Apostle Paul uses the examples of Isaac and Jacob to explain why the Word of God has not failed in regard to the Jews. He argues that God's promises were never meant for all descendants of Abraham, but for those chosen by God.

Paul points out that not all of Abraham's children were chosen to carry forward the promise. For instance, Ishmael was also a son of Abraham, but Isaac was the one through whom the promise would be fulfilled. Similarly, even within Isaac's family, God chose Jacob over Esau, demonstrating that God's election is not based on human desire or effort but on His own purpose and choice.

By highlighting these examples, Paul shows that God's word has not failed because it was never intended that every physical descendant of Abraham would be part of the chosen people, but rather those whom God elected according to His purpose. This helps explain the current state of Israel and the inclusion of Gentiles in the salvation plan.

ChatGPT / Aaron Fisher 

Drawn by Jesus? A Response to Leighton Flowers and upcoming Debate with James White.

A list of 7 simple questions asked and answered regarding John 6:44 ~ 

(1) Who are those "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son?

The Children of Promise aka God's Elect; a remnant unmeritely chosen by God's grace unto faith, righteousness and salvation (genesis 17:7, romans 9:8,11, and romans 11:5-7). 

(2) Why "initially" are the Children of Promise aka God's Elect "drawn" by Father as to come to the Son? Because they have always belonged to the Father and appointed beforehand OR prior to faith as already "heirs" according to Abraham Covenant (john 8:35-47, luke 19:10, galatians 4:30, romans 4:16, 22-25, romans 9:6-11)

(3) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Father?

There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events (ephesians 1:11 and ephesians 1:14).

(4) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Son?

There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events. The Father gave His Elect to the Son as His very own sheep before creation. This is why Ephesians 1:4 asserts that the Father chose "us" in Christ before the foundation of the world as already belonging to Him; with the end goal in mind to be "holy and blameless". The "heirs of promise" have always belonged to both the Father and the Son. This is also why Jesus can claim - "what's yours is mine and what is mine is yours" (john 17:10).

(5) Were those (children of promise aka God's elect) chose before creation elected unto salvation? YES! The same one's predestined before the foundation of the world for adoption as sons are the very same one's who go on to hear the word of truth and positively respond the Gospel as to be saved (ephesians 1:5 and ephesians 1:13-14) according to the context.

(6) Are those elected before creation unto salvation the same ones "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son and believe in Him? Absolutely! They are the very "heirs of promise" for whom the Son came down from Heaven as to do the will of the Father and lose none of all those whom before creation was given to Him (1 peter 1:18-25, 1 peter 2:6-10 and 1 peter 2:24-25).

(7) Are those "drawn" to the Son by the Father a particular people to the exclusion of the rest of mankind?

YES! The only ones drawn by the Father are the Children of Promise OR God's Elect who have already been appointed beforehand OR prior to faith for salvation. Those who have been passed over by God for salvation and will never or could ever be drawn by the Father (as in, an impossibility) to the Son are those for example the scripture speaks of as (a) the perishing (b) rest of mankind (c) those who Father is the Devil (d) and those who do not belong to Him as His sheep.

CONCLUSION: 

No one's "drawn" by the Father according to their "libertarian free will" as Leighton claims. The scriptures are clear! The only ones "drawn" are those whom the Father has eternally loved - His beloved; the Children of Promise, chosen before creation and decreed unto salvation. If Leighton would like to debate me; simply contact me - I'M READY.

By Aaron Fisher